Ignatieff has felt compelled to defend the fact that he voted in the UK at some point in the past. My question is simple: why would he defend himself? Only in the context of the Harper government can voting be characterized as wrongdoing. I lived in Britain for some years in the 1990s and because I was born in the UK I was entitled to vote. By virtue of the fact that the results of the elections affected my life, I voted. And surely only a Harper Tory could criticize anyone for taking part in the democratic process! We all know that the Conservatives don't won't people to vote here or anywhere else but Ignatieff should not legitimize the Conservative's anti-democratic tendencies by 'justifying' voting.
If Mr. Ignatieff was living in the UK and was entitled to vote, the only thing he should have to defend is if he had failed to exercise this democratic right.